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Orthopaedics William Via Orthopaedics William Via

Are Superior Labrum Tears coded to CPT 29806 or 29807?

Would 29807 or 29806 be reported for a repair of the superior anterior labrum without posterior extension? There is some confusion regarding the term "Superior" as being a qualifying factor pointing towards 29807 vs. 29806. Does the location of the tear being "Superior" qualify the tear to be reported with 29807 vs. 29806 regardless of whether both the anterior and posterior portions of the superior labrum were torn and repaired? The snippet of the operative report in question below documents only the anterior portion of the superior labrum was torn and repaired.

  • "diagnostic arthroscopy was performed. A tear of the anterior superior labrum was confirmed on diagnostic arthroscopy. The remainder of the labrum was intact. Attention was then turned to the repair of the anterior superior labrum and the labral cyst. The anterior superior glenoid was first debrided and the margin of the glenoid was debrided with the use of shave. Once bony bleeding had been achieved, attention was turned to placing the suture anchors. A total of 2 anchors were placed in the mattress stitch configuration. These were placed anterior superiorly as well as superiorly as well."

Question:

Would 29807 or 29806 be reported for a repair of the superior anterior labrum without posterior extension? There is some confusion regarding the term "Superior" as being a qualifying factor pointing towards 29807 vs. 29806. Does the location of the tear being "Superior" qualify the tear to be reported with 29807 vs. 29806 regardless of whether both the anterior and posterior portions of the superior labrum were torn and repaired? The snippet of the operative report in question below documents only the anterior portion of the superior labrum was torn and repaired.

  • "Diagnostic arthroscopy was performed. A tear of the anterior superior labrum was confirmed on diagnostic arthroscopy. The remainder of the labrum was intact. Attention was then turned to the repair of the anterior superior labrum and the labral cyst. The anterior superior glenoid was first debrided and the margin of the glenoid was debrided with the use of shave. Once bony bleeding had been achieved, attention was turned to placing the suture anchors. A total of two anchors were placed in a mattress stitch configuration, positioned anterior‑superiorly and superiorly.”

Answer:

I find that reviewing the labrum as a clock helps determine the best coding. To avoid confusion, as you present here, operative note dictation describing where the anatomic location of the tear is also beneficial.

With that said, the term "superior" is not necessarily the qualifying factor for selecting either CPT 29807 vs. 29806. As if you are looking at a clock, the SLAP tear occurs between the 11 (posterior) and 1 (anterior) positions. The anterior superior labrum is between the 1 and 3 position, therefore it is likely that a tear in the anterior superior labrum can be coded to 29807.

*This response is based on the best information available as of 06/04/26.

 
 
 
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Orthopaedics William Via Orthopaedics William Via

Multiple Femoral Fractures

I am wondering about charging both CPT codes 27506 (femur shaft) and 27245 (femur intertrochanteric). There is an NCCI edit indicating that 27245 is included with 27506 per mutually exclusive procedures. The provider is saying these are two separate injuries/entities and we should use a modifier. However, I am not sure if that would be correct since they are both on the same bone, just different locations of it. Can you please explain if it would be appropriate to code both codes for the same femur? It seems they are using one nail to fix both fractures. What if they are two separate fractures, does that make a difference? I am having trouble locating any guidance for this scenario. Thank you for your insight.

Question:

I am wondering about charging both CPT codes 27506 (femur shaft) and 27245 (femur intertrochanteric). There is an NCCI edit indicating that 27245 is included with 27506 per mutually exclusive procedures. The provider is saying these are two separate injuries/entities and we should use a modifier. However, I am not sure if that would be correct since they are both on the same bone, just different locations of it. Can you please explain if it would be appropriate to code both codes for the same femur? It seems they are using one nail to fix both fractures. What if they are two separate fractures, does that make a difference? I am having trouble locating any guidance for this scenario. Thank you for your insight.

Answer:

If one intramedullary implant is being placed to treat an intertrochanteric, peritrochanteric, or subtrochanteric fracture in addition to a femoral shaft fracture, only one code would be used. There is an NCCI edit stating that they are mutually exclusive procedures, and a modifier would not be appropriate to override the edit. 

Modifier 22 Increased Procedural Services may be appended if the documentation supports that the work required to treat the fractures was substantially greater than typically required. 

Code selection of either 27506 or 27245 should be determined by the provider based on which treatment was more extensive. 

*This response is based on the best information available as of 05/07/26.

 
 
 
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Orthopaedics William Via Orthopaedics William Via

Tibial Plateau Fractures

Can you please clarify if CPT 27536 requires two incisions, one for the medial and one for the lateral to be able to use this code?

Question:

Can you please clarify if CPT 27536 requires two incisions, one for the medial and one for the lateral to be able to use this code?

Answer:

While the common approach to a bicondylar tibial plateau fracture is by two incisions, one medial and one lateral, it is not required. The bicondylar fracture can be treated by a single midline approach for dual plating. 

What is important is that a bicondylar tibial fracture is being treated.  

CPT description reads: CPT 27536 Open treatment of tibial fracture, proximal (plateau); bicondylar, with or without internal fixation.

*This response is based on the best information available as of 04/02/26.

 
 
 
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Orthopaedics William Via Orthopaedics William Via

Two Stage ACL Treatment

Our docs have been seeing more patients that have had a re-tear of acl and are wanting to do bone grafting of tunnels in addition to medial and lateral meniscectomies and removal of hardware and evaluate the acl to see if it repairable. We are wondering if the bone grafting is separately billable and what code we should use for this?

Question:

Our docs have been seeing more patients that have had a re-tear of ACL and are wanting to do bone grafting of tunnels in addition to medial and lateral meniscectomies and removal of hardware and evaluate the ACL to see if it repairable. We are wondering if the bone grafting is separately billable and what code we should use for this?

Answer:

Thank you for your inquiry and recognizing we are not able to provide definitive coding advice without an operative note. This is a good question.

There is no specific CPT code for the first of two stage revision of an ACL. Current guidance for the removal of plugs, debridement of tunnels and filling the tunnels with a bone substitute is coded to 29999. 

*This response is based on the best information available as of 03/05/26.

 
 
 
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Orthopaedics William Via Orthopaedics William Via

Biceps Tenodesis or Tendon Transfer

The provider performs shoulder arthroplasties and also does a bicep muscle transfer to the pectoralis muscle. He bills 23472 for the arthroplasty and then wants to bill 23395 for the muscle transfer. The portion of his note for this procedure is: "I then traced the long head of the biceps brachii from the pectoralis major through the rotator interval and released the biceps from its origin. The biceps tendon was diseased from the groove to its insertion on the supraglenoid tubercle. I then sutured the tendon into the pectoralis major tendon as a muscle transfer." I am not in agreement that this procedure is representative of 23395 and think it should be 23430, which would bundle with the shoulder arthroplasty. Do you have any guidance on the correct use of 23395 and if it is the correct code in this situation? Thank you.


Question:

The provider performs shoulder arthroplasties and also does a bicep muscle transfer to the pectoralis muscle. He bills 23472 for the arthroplasty and then wants to bill 23395 for the muscle transfer. The portion of his note for this procedure is: "I then traced the long head of the biceps brachii from the pectoralis major through the rotator interval and released the biceps from its origin. The biceps tendon was diseased from the groove to its insertion on the supraglenoid tubercle. I then sutured the tendon into the pectoralis major tendon as a muscle transfer." I am not in agreement that this procedure is representative of 23395 and think it should be 23430, which would bundle with the shoulder arthroplasty. Do you have any guidance on the correct use of 23395 and if it is the correct code in this situation? Thank you.

Answer:

Thank you for your question. We have noticed providers trying to bill for 23472 and 23395 vs. 23472 and 23430.  Attaching the biceps tendon to the pectoralis major in the scenario you provided above should be coded to 23430. Reattaching the biceps, regardless of the location it is reattached, is considered a biceps tenodesis and should not be confused with a tendon transfer. 

There is an NCCI edit between 23472 and 23430 which needs to be followed for government payors. CPT Assistant July 2024 as well as the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons' Global Service Data (GSD) both state the biceps tenodesis is not part of the shoulder arthroplasty. A separate diagnosis for the biceps pathology should be added and linked to CPT 23430.

*This response is based on the best information available as of 02/05/26.

 
 
 
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X-Ray Coding: Is it the Hip or the Pelvis?

Can someone please answer the question of if the AP pelvis view is counted as a few when coding hip codes. For example, AP pelvis then 2 individual pictures of each hip AP & Lat; would this be coded as a 73523 (1V pelvis + 2V LT + 2V RT) or would this be coded as 73521 (AP and Lateral Views)? How would you code AP pelvis and 1V of LT Hip? 73501 since it is 1V Hip including AP Pelvis or 73502? There is conflicting information about whether you count the Pelvis as a view and whether you count the individual views done for each side.


Question:

Can someone please answer the question of if the AP pelvis view is counted as a few when coding hip codes? For example, AP pelvis then 2 individual pictures of each hip AP & Lat; would this be coded as a 73523 (1V pelvis + 2V LT + 2V RT) or would this be coded as 73521 (AP and Lateral Views)? How would you code AP pelvis and 1V of LT Hip? 73501 since it is 1V Hip including AP Pelvis or 73502? There is conflicting information about whether you count the Pelvis as a view and whether you count the individual views done for each side.

Answer:

Thank you for reaching out. If you are performing AP pelvis then 2 individual pictures of each hip AP & Lat; you would code 73523 Radiologic examination, hips, bilateral, with pelvis when performed; minimum of 5 views.  This is consistent with the AMA's Clinical Examples in Radiology guidelines from fall of 2015.

*This response is based on the best information available as of 01/22/26.

 
 
 
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